EarthStormFire
Banned
There exsist an f(x) and a g(x), such that the int(f(x)*g(x)dx) between (a, b ) is equal to 0. Then f(x) and g(x) form an orthogonal set between a and b.
Now my question is prove that if the first statement is true, then second sentence must also be true.
Note. int = integral
^ That is what I want to prove
Now my question is prove that if the first statement is true, then second sentence must also be true.
Note. int = integral
^ That is what I want to prove