You never heard of "I'm having X for dinner" as common vernacular where you're from? California must be weird then.
Okay, I'm out.
Enjoy the tag you're fishing for.
For the record: The verb "To Have" in english always declines as
I have
You have
He/She/It has
We have
You have
They have
In this tense, the verb "to have" always means possession.
"I have cake" does not mean "I am eating cake"
Never did, never will.
If you're sticking an auxillary word and adding an -ing to the verb, its no longer the same tense.
You never heard of "I'm having X for dinner" as common vernacular where you're from? California must be weird then.
"I'm having X for dinner" =/= "I have X for dinner."
How many times do we have to explain this to you?!
How many times?!
haha
HAHAHAHA
ha
ha
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Seriously they're not the same thing. I don't understand how you can't see that after so many people saying that they're not.
Answer the door.
Do you have ants in your pants?
Hold your horses.
Answer the door.
Fool me once shame on you, fool me twice teach a man to fool for life.
The first is a bit corny, sure, but I don't see the issue with these.
I don't either, just bringing up some examples I suppose
Fool me once shame on you, fool me twice teach a man to fool for life.
¯\_(ツ_/¯
It's a greater contribution to the thread than any of my posts.
Yeah because they are in different tenses, again, I'll list my example in all tenses:
"I have cake" = "I eat cake"
"I'm having cake" = "I'm eating cake"
"I had cake" = "I ate cake"
Wait what? Are you kidding?
Have does not mean eat.
Wait what? Are you kidding?
Have does not mean eat.
I fail to see how "I'm having X for dinner" doesn't mean the same thing as "I'm eating X for dinner"
I'm having Jane for dinner.
inb4 "Jane is a person, you don't eat Jane."
That's what you think![]()
Most modsrn societies don't practice cannibalism.
Yeah because they are in different tenses, again, I'll list my example in all tenses:
"I have cake" = "I eat cake" - INCORRECT
"I'm having cake" = "I'm eating cake" - CORRECT
"I had cake" = "I ate cake" - CORRECT
"Eat" has multiple definitions.
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I don't sex for dinner. Or any mealtime anyway.
There. Now you know exactly why you are wrong.
I fail to see how "I'm having X for dinner" doesn't mean the same thing as "I'm eating X for dinner"
Then why is "I'm having X for mealtime" commonplace for American English?
I fail to see how "I'm having X for dinner" doesn't mean the same thing as "I'm eating X for dinner"
having =/= have
Having can mean eating. Ex. I'm having cake, I'm having pizza.
Have cake does not mean eat cake.
"Eat" has multiple definitions.
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Something which is very easy to do. It is thought that this idiom originated in the 1870s when it was tradition to give cakes as prizes in competitions. ... From this, the expression 'a piece of cake' started being used to describe something that was easy to achieve.Seeing us all go way off-topic into a long, fruitless back and forth about the supposed ambiguity of having cake, I have now come to the realisation in the context of this thread that the idiom "a piece of cake" is stupid.
"I'll eat cake" = "I'll have cake?" No?
"I'll eat cake" = "I'll have cake?" No?
"I'll eat cake" = "I'll have cake?" No?
"Have" does too.
"I had her"
Now having your cake and eating it too has a new more interesting meaning
I'll is a contraction of I & will. So that can be correct. The will is a modifier.
But just saying I have cake is not the same as I eat cake.
English can have confusing rules if you are not a native speaker and this apparently is one of them.
I fail to see the difference, even if there is one. Another example:
"I can have the cake" = "I can eat the cake" No?
I think the rest of you fail to understand the nuances of language.
[...]
Have, having etc. Never has the same meaning as eat
No, I know that you fail to understand the structure of language.
And you know this how?
I can't believe I read all 8 pages of this and OP still hasn't budged. Evening wasted.
The devil is beating his wife.
It means raining while the sun is out.
Because words can have multiple overlapping definitions.
Op needs to learn another idiom:OP believes words can have different meanings depending on context.
OP refuses to interpret common saying in any other context other than the one he believes is correct.
Make up your mind OP.
Yes, they can, but that isn't what is happening here.
I fail to see the difference, even if there is one. Another example:
"I can have the cake" = "I can eat the cake" No?
OP believes words can have different meanings depending on context.
OP refuses to interpret common saying in any other context other than the one he believes is correct.
Make up your mind OP.