theignoramus
Member
I think the main difference between murder and genocide is the number.
No, but the way in which you're disagreeing with Sentry makes it sound a little bit like that. Though you're right of course if you're simply arguing semantics.
no, it's intent. For there to be a charge of genocide, there has to be intent on the part of the perpetrator, to destroy, in whole or in part an ethnic or religious group. arguably the Clinton admin did have this intent when it imposed its sanctions regime and banned powdered milk, baby formula, and life saving medicine from Iraq, claiming it was a dual use item. But it would be extremely hard to prove.