Not only are you likely ignoring the reasons for those recessions (*ahem* money printing, war, and debt.... over, and over, and over), but we have NEVER had a system that was truly based on free market dynamics of setting exchange rates and prices. We have never had a system that is 100% backed by a physical asset since the days goldsmiths used to issue receipts for the gold in their vaults. That actually worked quite well... you indeed had recessions (which are inherent in a human economic process), but you never had full blown depressions that began as soon as money-printing central banks started popping up around the world.
1. Yes we did. Panic of 1827? The Long Depression?
2. The Great Depression was aided by an adherence to Gold. Countries that ignored it fared much better.
Also, that system you describe did not work out well and there are economic papers out there that show as much. Going back to the 1200s it's been demonstrated how poorly it actually worked.
As I mentioned before, market forces are stabilizing. When you arbitrarily peg a currency to a fixed exchange rate (and you have to defend that exchange rate through the balance of payments between nations), then you have instability. The supply of gold or other commodities, is not only predictable, but stable in the long-run. The demand for money fluctuates depending on the current state of the economy... and a fiat system double-fucks it by letting monetarists also affect the supply of money.
This is a bunch of gobbledygook that doesn't address what I said.
The fact that the supply of gold is stable in the long run is
very bad and if you don't understand that concept then you're missing the entire picture.
This is quite a stretch of an analysis, and yet, you do not include the rest of the arguments made directly from the source:
http://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/GoldStandard.html
It's only a stretch if you don't understand what's being said, which you clearly don't by what follows.
But what I quoted was
a direct refutation of that point and a demonstration of why that viewpoint is nonsensical.
This was the first sentence after that quote: "But because economies under the gold standard were so vulnerable to real and monetary shocks, prices were highly unstable in the short run."
As I said already, the long term stability of gold, which is its so-called virtue, is USELESS. What
actually matters is the short-term volatility of money. It DOES NOT matter if gold is worth the same in 30 years from now as today; what matters is if gold's value rises and falls a lot during that time period which it always has and is always bad.
I didn't need to include that quote because I already conceded the long term stability in price; my point is that long term stability is a bad thing if it comes with short term volatility - a point you don't seem to get.
Of course, when you have any standard deviation over an average rate of 0.1, you'll get a high multiple. The inverse is also true.
I don't think you understand what a standard deviation is. Not that it matters, but the article described the coefficient of variation which is not standard deviation. If you did understand this, you would have understood that the values of the average are irrelevant because the math fixes that problem.
But you're clearing just trying to regurgitate stuff you read on crank websites.
You forgot to include this nugget from the article, which is ultimately my point:
It is this arbitrary "fixing" of exchange rates that prevented the system to work... but the underlying causes for the instability were wars, indebtedness, and a loss of demand/confidence for investments/currency of a country.
The system never worked and will never work and this predates any fixing of exchange rates. It's always an excuse with you gold buggers. When shown gold doesn't work, it's that we never truly had a real gold standard. Or we never really had a real free market.
Well, howabout this, if that's truly the case, guess what? it's probably because it's impossible. So move the fuck on.
As far as the second point, that governments lose the ability to effect monetary policy, then GOOD. Perhaps it is a dirty little secret, but Keynes did NOT argue that monetary policy would be effective as a determinant of aggregate demand. If you read Minsky's book on Keynes, you will understand that Keynes actually argued that uncertainty and cycles (deflation included) are inherent in the system. The policy makers picked and chose the bits of Keynes that favored the adjustment of interest rates to promote investment... which fell right into the hands of the global bankers that created the Fed in 1913. Now they had an excuse to control the money supply for the sake of "stability and prosperity". Instead, they now let the US middle class pay for the hidden tax of inflation, while they inflate their asset base (debt). It's a nice gig... at least in between global financial depressions.
When the hell did i mention Keynes, monetary policy, etc? It couldn't be more obvious that you just spit out things you've read elsewhere like a telemarketer because I made no mention or implication of any such discussion here, so you're clearly confused.
You gold buggers are hilarious.