Quran says it's the only unchanged text of religion and it's forbidden to alter it, correct? How do you trust all of those reports of the rulings of the community, since they're more than a thousand years old, and unlike the Quran, they are not immune to alterations? Who's to say someone didn't make them up based on their beliefs at the time. The only absolute, unchanged words of God and the Prophet are in the Quran. Everything else has no guarantee of being accurate or correct.
The collections of the hadith are one of the greatest, most intensive scholarly works of any culture. Their collection, while not making them immune to alteration, makes it a far more likely premise that they have no been altered in a significant way, so as to make them useless. Additionally, the value of the Messenger of Allah (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) is something vouchsafed in the Qur'an. For the Muslim living in the current time, their access to him is through these scholarly traditions, just as God does not allow the Qur'an to be changed, so access to the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) is always possible, regardless of the times.
At least until the end, at which point both the Qur'an, and the accounts of the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) will leave the community in entirety.
Prison time is a lot different than being a slave for the state. Being a prisoner and a slave are two different things. Even prisoners have rights in our modern societies and they are not "owned" by the state. Most importantly, a slave has no say in whether he's a slave or not, but everyone in prison went there because of their actions and through the legal system. Therefore, this analogy of yours fails.
Many slave holding societies gave rights to slaves.
The actions of a person to bring themselves to a point of slavery makes no difference in them being defined as a slave.
What defines a slave is not rights, or actions leading up to the point of slavery, it is ownership of liberty and labour. A slave is one whose liberty and labour are owned by another. Thus a prisoner is a slave of the state.
He wrote a book that says "it can't be altered in any way", so he was elaborating on some unclear parts of the Quran. It's like software development, when you find bugs but the software has already gone gold, the best you can do is to acknowledge them and write reports about it. The problem is that we cannot trust any reports or history of what he did in his lifetime except for the Quran, as everything else is subject to alteration.
Your analogy fails. It also is a false assertion, simply because everything else could possibly be subject to alteration, in part or whole, does not mean that a reasonable person automatically assumes that this alteration has occurred.
Furthermore, if one takes the Qur'an's word on the Qur'an being intended as an eternal document (it can't be altered in any way doesn't mean what you seem to think it does, it is a command, not a statement of fact) then one also takes the Qur'an's word regarding the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) and his role.
Because it claims to be the universal, the final, the be all and end all source of God's word that transcends time and space, yet it contains verses that don't apply to our modern society. Therefore it is held up to the context of my time and society, and fails miserably at it.
You assert that they don't apply to modern society, that is a subjective interpretation, not an objective one. In order for it to be an argument at all, you need the assertion, followed by a reason for it. You haven't presented this, thus your argument does not follow.
You have to choose one of the following: either the Quran is not a universal book and only intended for tribes living in the Arabian peninsula around 7th Century AD, or that it's a universal book containing the words of a barbaric, psychopath god that suggests mutilation as punishment. Which one will you choose?
Oh, well, with such wonderful choices, not at all containing weasel words or false dichotomies, how can I possibly choose?
*sigh*
The Qur'an is a universal book, some of its rulings are contextual, some are universal and others are understood with context as a guide. You have presented me a false dichotomy, this is a sign of a very bad argument.
Oh, and any person suggesting mutilation in this day and age is clearly a barbarian psychopath that needs to be kept away from the general population. This is not a subjective opinion, but an objective fact that's verifiable through observation of societies that practice this vs ones that don't practice it and seeing which one is better off.
Again, you need to look up what 'objective' means. There are people on this forum, non-Muslims, who have agreed with me previously regarding the appropriateness of corporal punishment. Similarly your own culture (whichever it is) embraced corporal punishment up until very recently, with far fewer checks and balances than mine.
So all of a sudden, when your culture changes its mind on an issue, it becomes an objective fact? Sounds pretty dodgy to me. What happens in another twenty years when your culture changes its mind again? Will that be an objective fact also?
Also I think that your assertion regarding 'better off' is fundamentally flawed. Unless you are saying that the lack of corporal punishment is a reason for European societies and their offshoots being temporarily dominant on the world stage (give it a few years) then you need to seriously investigate exactly what you are claiming. The height of European and 'Western' control has passed, and throughout its height, corporal punishment was still practised.
One of the greatest imperial powers, Britain, had a navy built on the whip, for much softer crimes. Also need I point out that the death penalty is merely an extension of the principle of corporal punishment, and is an enshrined method of criminal disposal in the United States, one of the greatest world powers for the last 50 years.
Your assertion, essentially that you can turn the negativity of corporal punishment into an objective fact by observing the success or lack thereof of societies that practice it, is riddled with flaws. Not only because there are historic examples of successful societies who practised it, but also because causality is not clear. It could just as much be that 'successful' (and by success you mean success at domination of others, and the accumulation of wealth from such) societies are disinclined towards corporal punishment by merit of their success, and not successful because of that disinclination. Indeed if we are looking for a more likely causality, that one stands out far clearer, as I think the success of certain nations has far more to do with economics and skill at violence than it does their opinion on corporal punishment.