OttomanScribe
Member
As a husband, a politician, a leader and a military strategist, he embodied the Message that he brought with him. How could he not? The Qur'an would not refer to him as the one to obey and seek explanation from, if he was not 100% compliant with the revelation that was given to him. As the Messenger of God (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) he is the example of the perfect believer. The way that a Muslim can become a true believer is through emulating the best of us, the perfect example.Prophet Muhammad wasn't a mute messenger, I never said that. He was probably the greatest politician, uniter of men, and leader the world has and will ever see. His job spiritually was simply to warn mankind and deliver God's message and this the Quran is very clear and repetitive about. However, he was also a husband, a politician, a leader, and military strategist. He performed to the best of his abilities in those roles, but those were not his spiritual mission. The mission was to simply convey the message. That message we have and it's the only thing that has come to us preserved a 100% from him. The hadith try to capture all the rest of him, but unfortunately they come 200 years later which is ample time for history to be distorted.
That opportunity remains, because the hadith remain, there may be differences in legal schools and a small margin of error but it is exactly there: the margins. A Muslim is safest when he is emulating the Messenger of God (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam).
What if you were a billionaire and decided that you couldn't spare a cent? You need a new lambo to crash, so you just can't spare it. That is not following the Qur'an as the source of law, that is not a law at all. The purpose and function of zakat is social welfare, the redistribution of a portion of wealth from those can afford it, to those who need it. If that is something that can be opted in and out of at a whim, then its function is completely degraded.It is following the Quran as the source of law. God knows everyone can afford to give different amounts of charity. It's a beautiful verse when you consider what it is saying. Each one of us knows what we can spend. If I was a billionaire I could spend much more than 2.5% of my wealth and if I am living off of food stamps and welfare, how can I spare to give anything?
He did not need to say, the Messenger of Allah (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) defined it on his behalf, in the role as arbitrator that the Qur'an described.Your original question was how do we know how much to give because God doesn't say, now you see that God did say but now ask how is 'whatever you can spare defined' and I wonder why is it so hard to follow what is a very simple command? If God wanted it to be 2.5%, don't you think he would say so? He does give us figures for inheritance after all. No, but you are now seeking another source of law and you don't seem to realize. Consider my friend the story of the children of Israel. God said, sacrifice a cow. Instead of following the simple command, they made it complicated and kept asking for more details, what color is she? How old is she? What condition should she be in?. In this is a great lesson. Ponder over it.
If taking the command of the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) on these matters is 'taking another source of law', then so is what you describe as a Quranist.
The question is 'how is whatever you can spare defined' and there are two answers:
a: how the Messenger of Allah (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) and his companions defined it.
b: how I choose to define it now.
If a is seeking another source of law, so is b. I don't need to say which one I believe is the more trustworthy judgement on the question at hand.
Abu Bakr (radiAllahu anhu) went to war not because they refused to pay allegiance to his rule (he was chosen by majority consensus), that Medina and the Caliph were due allegiance was not in question, what was in question was the distribution of zakat. They were under the impression that the zakat was a tax deal they had made with the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam), while in reality, it was and is an integral of the religion.Consider what I have said above, but to answer this, Abu Bakr didn't go to war over interpretations of the Quran. He went to war because these tribes refused to pay allegiance to his rule. They claimed their allegiance was only to Muhammad and with his passing they no longer had to be part of his community or follow Abu Bakr. It was politics more than anything else.
That is certainly the way in which the Messenger of Allah (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) acted, however without his example, what is to stop one from cherry picking? While the hadith literature and the consensus of the scholars is against the 'beat your wife' understanding, what if your forgiveness runs dry, along with your patience, and aggression results?The verse in question can't be taken alone without the regard to the rest of the Quran which consistently encourages the listener to be forgiving, patient, and not aggressive.
Islam is not merely aimed at those perfect in character, it is aimed at the uncouth, the rude, to enjoin upon them good conduct and reign them in when they break such conduct. How would you reign one such person in without the hadith? Or would you just define 'spreading corruption in the land' in whatever way you liked?
The Quran is arranged as it is because God chose it to be arranged this way and that's how it's been memorized since the beginning. I trust God did it for a reason. There are hadith which say so and so ayah was revealed at this time, but again, how accurate are they? Can't be sure. There has never been a consensus on when certain ayahs were revealed.
Abrogation is not something that's been accepted by all Muslims, and this is not something recent. Not everyone is even able to agree on what should be abrogated and what not.
I don't believe the Quran abrogates itself. It does abrogate verses God has sent in the past though, verses of previous scriptures.
Even without abrogation, this still is a massive stumbling block in understanding the meaning of the Qur'an. One example is that of alcohol. If one takes the revelations out of order (or without order) one can make alcohol permissible. Without it being clear that the verse in Surah Maidah, one can argue that alcohol is permissible. Do you disagree? Is this not an issue?
As to the arranging of the Qur'an, it is not a 'part of the Qur'an' in that it is not something recorded in revelation (for example there is no verse saying 'Surah Fatiha goes first') but it was something conveyed to the Messenger of God (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) that was then enacted and preserved by the believers. The process being described in the hadith, as far as I am aware. I'll admit we are at semantics now, this discussion stemmed from a misunderstanding in the first place anyway.The Quran was arranged by God (25:32). The placement of each ayah is not recorded in the hadith, it is a part of the Quran itself.
And different pronunciation styles (which are transmitted to us through oral tradition) can have the possibility of creating different meanings. How do you know how to pronounce the Qur'an, if not through the very method of transmission which you view as inadequate?The hadith don't record how to pronounce the Quran.. They just record the fact that it can be pronounced differently.
They don't give their own laws though, they let the rest of us know what God is saying his laws are. They judge by the laws of God. The prophetic example is living the Quran, and that is all the prophet follows. He has no authority to come up with his own religious laws. God told him to follow what was revealed (7:3, 7:203, 10:15,46:9, etc.), and so Muhammad said ...I but follow what is revealed to me." (6:50, 6:106).
I agree, and this supports the traditions of the majority of the Muslims more than the Quranists. It shows that any of the laws which the Rasul'Allah (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) gave to us, are his interpretation of the Qur'an. That which is revealed to the Messenger of God (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) by God, is not confined purely to Quranic verses, surely we can both agree on that?
Thus there is not the contradiction you imply between him following that which is revealed to him, and dispensing with laws that are not explicitly stated in the Qur'an (though they are implied, or you disagree that they are explicitly stated, none contradict anyway).
What the Messenger of Allah (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) was not 'preaching his own separate law'. What he was doing was acting as the guide described, embodying the Quranic injunctions and providing an example of all of them.In Muhammad was a good example for people to see, and God says this like in Surah Al'Ahzab when He points out that the Prophet is brave in the face of danger (33:21). Nowhere does God give Muhammad the right to preach his own separate law.
It is not needed to say. One who abandons his Sunnah, his example and his arbitration, is one who loses the meaning of the Qur'an, as understood by the most able to understand it. To forsake the most sound way to understand the Qur'an, is to forsake it.Consider, what it is that Prophet Muhammad will complain to God about on the day of Judgement: O my Lord, people have treated this Quran as a thing forsake. (25:30). Why won't he mention people abandoning his sunna or his sayings? No, the Quran is what has been abandoned.
What verse says specifically that he was only to follow the Qur'an? Not Allah?As stated many times above, the delivery boy only followed the Quran, not his own laws. Yet according to the hadith, he invented other laws. Read them again then. He was only a plain warner. Not my words.
I don't mean disrespect by this, but what makes you think that you are as capable of interpretation as he? What makes you think that your own ijtihad is so sound? Especially when it contradicts the multitude of those who came before you?Let me be clear. I don't need the results of a 200 year long game of chinese whispers to tell me how the Prophet behaved, his behavior and practices were based on the same book that I have right besides me. Those copious examples are not reliable.
Explain the translation to me? All I got from it was the question being asked 'who told you this?' and the replying being, essentially; God told me.All knowledge is from God. When I find something I lost, I praise Allah because He is the one who revealed me its location. It doesn't require Him coming down in person. When I learn something new, it is God that has taught me. This verse doesn't imply what you are saying.
If I asked you, 'who taught you maths', would you say 'God taught me Maths'? I mean alhamduliLlah, in a literal sense this is true, but in terms of all the tafsir I have read, your interpretation of this verse seems unique. What made you take it this way specifically?
Could you give me a reference on that? I am familiar with his life and his writings, he debated with those who relied more on deduction and recognising intent than upon a combination of the Qur'an and the Sunnah, but those he debated with were not those who were against the hadith, but rather those who viewed them as a source for extrapolation in cases where a specific issue was not covered. As far as I know anyway.People have argued against the hadith. Imam Shafi'i was having heated debates with them in the 2nd century hijra.
His methodological approach was recognised as one of the four valid methodological approaches, and this approach became named after him. To say that his 'views' more generally, in terms of his rulings anyway, were followed by all as 'canon' is not true. Refer to the ruling in the Shafi'i school on beardsHis view won and his views were taken as canon by people following him.
Unless you consider yourself a Prophet, this is not a good analogy to make.Paul debated with James (Jesus's own brother of all people!) and in the end Pauline Christianity prevailed.
Indeed, and once it happened in truth, and the revelation became lost, it was only revived by a Prophet or a Messenger (alayhis salaam).....Allah has already told us that people divide into sects, and follow other than God's scripture after the revelation has come to them. This has happened with those before us too.
Having just made a bunch of comparisons between mainstream Islam and Christian deification of Jesus (alayhis salaam), this rings a bit hollow.I don't consider myself to be a sectarian. I have no issue praying with Shias or Sunnis. I am neither a hanafi or a shafi or a quranist, I am one who submits to God's will (clear and perfect in the Quran). It isn't the Quran that divides people, it is all that is besides it that does that.
The sects did not exist for a long time after the fitna. Shiism only really began in Safavid Persia as a separate theological and fiqh movement. Before then Sunnah and Shia were not separate in the way they are now. This separation occurred after the great hadith compilations.It was their fitna which led to the fracture whih eventually led to the sects and introduced countless fabricated hadith.
I did not say without reason. I just said chopping off heads.Tell me, where does the Quran tell me to chop of the heads of unbelievers for no reason?
I haven't stoned anyone recently. How do you take the verse about slaying those who 'spread corruption in the land'? I gather that most scholars refer to that in relation to that justification.If the hadith are not scripture and do not override the Quran, then why do you stone adulterers?
In the beginning was the Quran only. It was the sole source of law which Muhammad himself used to make his decisions. Then he died. 200+ years went by. His legend spread, and as with any famous person, a lot of false ideas attributed to him spread as well. Innovations calling for the ban of music, for the stoning of adulterers, predictions of an anti-christ. Bukhari went around and collected what he thought were the most sound. People came to accept them. Later, when education is a norm and people aren't threatened for their religious views (well they still are in most Muslim countries), people started noticing that the Quran doesn't agree with the hadith in all places and were able to freely question it. Turns out the hadith were compiled centuries after Muhammad. Rejection of hadith is nothing new, it's always been around. Their views have been suppressed, and lost through the centuries. Just because Paul won doesn't make him right.
Alternatively:
Allah revealed the Qur'an to Sayyidina Rasul'Allah (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam), the Qur'an came as a revelation, a confirmation and clarification of what came before, and a proof. The Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) came as the clarification of the revelation, the lawgiver and interpreter, the example for the believers to follow and refer to for guidance. After his death, his community did their best to uphold the traditions and interpretation he had given him, taking efforts to record both the Qur'an and his way and example (the Sunnah). Over the course of the next 150-200 years, his traditions were kept by a community dedicated to his religion.
Then it seemed that the hold on the rope was slipping, and so systematic ways of accessing that example grew up around the great scholars of the age, who checked the stories behind the hadith (not just Bukhari), to ensure they were not fabricated. The hadith science, fiqh and aqidah of the age were formulated to hold on to the rope that lead back to the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam), formalising something that already existed.
This tradition continued in the form of the Ahlul-Sunnah Wa Jamaat to this day. Then in 1800s, a modernist movement arises under British rule in India. Chiragh Ali, in an attempt to reinterpret various accepted understandings within the Muslim community, was the first Muslim scholar that I can find who questioned the veracity of the hadith literature in general (as opposed to the veracity of individual hadith). Then later on you have a few other notables, including a few Western non-Muslims, who agreed. These ideas, both about the role of the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) and about the role of the Qur'an, are new.
This is something that is so clear when one reads the works of people like Imam Shafi'i, the idea that the entirety of the hadith literature were untrustworthy and that basing the conduct of the Muslims partly upon them went against the Qur'an, would seem to have been preposterous. If it were not, you surely would have seen many of those who were 'analogists' of the school of Imam Abu Hanifa, going down that road.
I don't understand akhi, how you can say that 200 years is a long time in terms of transferred information, and then assert that you and the people in this modernist movement have discovered something that everyone missed. What new information exists out there?
The fundamental issue here is that I don't find the hadith to be reliable as you do. Until my heart can be content knowing that I am following something which is a 100% reliable, I can't seek another source of law besides the Quran.
I don't feel that the hadith are a source of law, the Prophet (sullAllahu alayhi wasalaam) is a source of interpretation of the Qur'an, and the hadith are a source about him. It is as simple as that for me. I have been lucky enough to study the hadith sciences (nowhere near an ijaza lol) with some great scholars, and what I know of how hadith are evaluated and transmitted, is sufficient for me. I also trust that God would not conserve the wording of the Qur'an, without conserving its meaning.