On the other hand, should the results of this referendum be ignored - which I believe is a constitutionally legal possibility - what would that mean for any future referenda on, say, Scottish Independence?
Objectively speaking, one could view the referendum as simply signifying a vote of no-confidence in the EU (which I honestly believe a lot of "leave" voters expected it to be), as opposed to a decree of executive action. But that would obviously have major ramifications regarding precedent.
Honestly I think its a fascinating situation if you take a step back from the hysterics. Because essentially so far every act and piece of rhetoric has been politically symbolic only, the Rubicon has not been crossed until Article 50 has been triggered.