Are you 5?
No, idioms are a specific thing, just because you are using it to represent a logical fallacy it doesn't mean that it loses its identity as an idiom, that makes no sense at all.Because the idiom is used as a logical fallacy example where logic is paramount. It should follow that the idiom should follow logic as well with no ambiguity right?
Easier to understand for people who can understand very simple concepts and speak a minimal amount of English. Some people around here don't meet those requirements.For the longest time I thought that the idiom was talking about making your own cake and eating too, which would be selfish. but I was wrong lol
The idiom says "you can't have your cake and eat it too". When in fact it should say "you can't eat your cake and have it too". It is easier to comprehend, and makes more sense.
This is, as far as I know, a common point.For the longest time I thought that the idiom was talking about making your own cake and eating too, which would be selfish. but I was wrong lol
The idiom says "you can't have your cake and eat it too". When in fact it should say "you can't eat your cake and have it too". It is easier to comprehend, and makes more sense.
I love this thread.
OP, what does this sentence mean?
I have to have my cake now.
...or better yet.
I have this cake here, but we have to have it now.
No, idioms are a specific thing, just because you are using it to represent a logical fallacy it doesn't mean that it loses its identity as an idiom, that makes no sense at all.
Figures of speech remain figures of speech when used in that context, they don't get distilled into their literal parts, losing their metaphorical meaning.
So there's no actual ambiguity because the meaning of the idiom is known. It could only ever be seen as ambiguous if you are ignorant of its meaning, but that's not the idiom's fault.
I love this thread.
OP, what does this sentence mean?
I have to have my cake now.
...or better yet.
I have this cake here, but we have to have it now.
Now they are cherry-picking quotes from an explanation that explicitly contradicts their usage. Troll thread is trolling.
Oh youve gone and done it now! Incoming 12 pages about why would you want to eat the cake when youre already eating a cake thats been eaten.
eat
But yet its still cake. We don't typically call partially-eating cake partially-eaten cake, no, we call it cake.
The strange thing is that OP seems to accept that "to eat" in this idiom involves eating it in its completion and yet is now claiming that they'll take a selfie eating cake as if that makes the idiom incorrect.
OP:
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The strange thing is that OP seems to accept that "to eat" in this idiom involves eating it in its completion and yet is now claiming that they'll take a selfie eating cake as if that makes the idiom incorrect.
First of all "Can't have your cake and eat it too" is not the name of any specific logical fallacy, so the comparison with Ad hominem and Strawman fallacy is neither here nor there.How doesn't it make sense? Pointing out a logical fallacy has a logical meaning, like strawman, ad hominem, etc. In case of the Latin-rooted fallacy terms, they are their literal meaning. Why should an idiom be exempt from that?
No, I never accepted that. My argument is at follows:
Regarding the idiom "You can't have your cake and eat it to" is stupid in that
A) You have to have your cake in the first place in order to eat it
B) When you are eating cake, you are having cake, at the same time
C) One should not be ashamed for eating cake.
If you're serious with this comment, I would pay all the money in the world to sit you down and explain it to you like you're 5.
Which, by the way, is what I referring to. Once you eat your cake, you don't have it. You stop having it. It's eaten.
That's always bothered me about the movie. I think it's probably goes until the sun goes up, but it's not explained, so that's just my personal way of coping. Probably one of my favorite movies, but it annoys me."Don't feed them after midnight"
So, what, I can't feed them at 6am before I go to work? How about 9am? When's the cut-off point?!
If you're serious with this comment, I would pay all the money in the world to sit you down and explain it to you like you're 5.
Which, by the way, is what I referring to. Once you eat your cake, you don't have it. You stop having it. It's eaten.
Again, who eats an entire cake in one sitting. An on another note, nowhere in the idiom implies future tense.
Again, who eats an entire cake in one sitting? And on another note, nowhere in the idiom implies future tense. People keep bringing up the future tense, the idiom in no way shape or form implies that.
How doesn't it make sense? Pointing out a logical fallacy has a logical meaning, like strawman, ad hominem, etc. In case of the Latin-rooted fallacy terms, they are their literal meaning. Why should an idiom be exempt from that?
"I have to eat my cake now"
"I have this cake here but we eat to eat it now." This sounds redundant. Better to say "I have this cake here but we're going to eat it now."
You said you were Japanese, you know how small cakes can be.
What about cake burps? The idiom doesn't take into account cake burps
(even Japan has full on American-sized cakes)?
Now you've established that even in the context of food have doesn't have to mean eat. You pick the definition of the word that makes the most sense with the context given. What you're doing is cherry picking one possible interpretation and using it prove a point against the common sense interpretation.
You can literally say " you can't have your cake, and have it too" and make sense. It would be more confusing, but you would still easily arrive at the point.
Yes I am, because the idiom is often uttered as a logical fallacy. In terms of an argument I'm not going to bring up a vague metaphor to declare fallacy, that's contradictory. If people say "No you can't do that, you're having your cake and eating it too" my rebuttal is always "so? If I have the cake I'm going to eat it."
the phrase is used to say "you can't eat a cake and continue to own said cake once you already ate all of it."
but
We're not talking half a cake. We're not talking just a slice of cake. We're talking about the whole cake.
It doesn't matter how long it takes you to eat the whole thing. The point is that, once you've already eaten the whole cake, you no longer own that cake. Because you ate it.
but
We're not talking half a cake. We're not talking just a slice of cake. We're talking about the whole cake.
It doesn't matter how long it takes you to eat the whole thing. The point is that, once you've already eaten the whole cake, you no longer own that cake. Because you ate it.
I eat this cake here, but we eat to eat it now. DuhI love this thread.
OP, what does this sentence mean?
I have to have my cake now.
...or better yet.
I have this cake here, but we have to have it now.
First of all "Can't have your cake and eat it too" is not the name of any specific logical fallacy, so the comparison with Ad hominem and Strawman fallacy is neither here nor there.
Secondly, idioms are not exempt from that as there's no formal requirements for declarations of logical fallacy to be strictly literal, your question, again, is puzzling as it seems to imply rules that never have existed. If I use a metaphor to describe fallacious reasoning, I'm not doing anything wrong, as metaphors are not fallacies.
I would also have to ask you what an Argumentum ad lapidem would mean, literally speaking, as its meaning is entirely derived from a specific anecdote.
Where in the idiom implies future tense? Tell me, what word, or predicate? If I have the cake I will eat it due to the primary purpose of the cake and the fact that having = eating.
You can't have your cake and eat it (too) is a popular English idiomatic proverb or figure of speech.[1] The proverb literally means "you cannot simultaneously retain your cake and eat it". Once the cake is eaten, it is gone. It can be used to say that one cannot or should not have or want more than one deserves or is reasonable, or that one cannot or should not try to have two incompatible things. The proverb's meaning is similar to the phrases "you can't have it both ways" and "you can't have the best of both worlds."
AnathemicOne misunderstands the meanings of "have" and "eat" as used here but still understand the proverb in its entirety and intent and use it in this form. AnathemicOne feels this form of the proverb is incorrect and illogical and instead prefer "you can't eat your cake and [then still] have it", which is in fact closer to the original form of the proverb[2] (see further explanations below) but uncommon today. Another variant uses "keep" instead of "have".[3]
Having to choose whether to have or eat your cake illustrates the concept of trade-offs or opportunity cost.[4][5][6]
Consider this, the future tense is implied because the idiom wouldn't make sense otherwise.
That cake expression is stupid. That you can make sense of it doesn't matter, it's still poorly phrased. Expressions shouldn't be poorly phrased. Is there any language with an equivalent expression? I know French doesn't, and it's because it's terrible.
Where in the idiom implies future tense? Tell me, what word, or predicate? If I have the cake I will eat it due to the primary purpose of the cake and the fact that having = eating.
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All hail Jobu
The idiom describes a hypothetical future. Think of it as a conditional sentence (eg: If you eat your cake, you won't have it too).
An idiom and an (idiomatic) expression are the same thing.
That's not how its used in arguments though. People declare that "one cannot have cake and eat it too" as if to shame the person. There's no future tense or hypothetical here.
That's not how its used in arguments though. People declare that "one cannot have cake and eat it too" as if to shame the person. There's no future tense or hypothetical here.
Trust me, it's hypothetical.
What's an example that you've heard? I've never heard it used in this way.
That's not how its used in arguments though. People declare that "one cannot have cake and eat it too" as if to shame the person. There's no future tense or hypothetical here.
Implication doesn't hold scrutiny as a logical fallacy declaration when it it often used. Again if someone tells me that I'm ignoring a tradeoff of sorts and declare "You can't have your cake and eat it too" my rebuttal would be "Yes I can, that's the purpose of the cake, to eat it."
I realised quick enough to stealth edit but you just had to broadcast my mistake to the world, didn't you? ;(
OP, the idiom is just stating that you generally can't enjoy the benefits of an item and still retain that whole, unused item. It's really not about "logical fallacy declarations" or the purpose of the cake or the guilt of eating cake or whatever else you're trying to mold it into.
If you have 5 dollars and you spend that 5 dollars you don't have the same five dollars left. Is that true or not, OP?
Why are you eating five dollars????OP, the idiom is just stating that you generally can't enjoy the benefits of an item and still retain that whole, unused item. It's really not about "logical fallacy declarations" or the purpose of the cake or the guilt of eating cake or whatever else you're trying to mold it into.
If you have 5 dollars and you spend that 5 dollars you don't have the same five dollars left. Is that true or not, OP?
Fine, your mistake is now censored. No one will ever know. My fingers are sealed.