Examples of Stupid Idioms

OP, is this you?


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=63Y5XjlO4vk

TadkV.gif
 
Because the idiom is used as a logical fallacy example where logic is paramount. It should follow that the idiom should follow logic as well with no ambiguity right?
No, idioms are a specific thing, just because you are using it to represent a logical fallacy it doesn't mean that it loses its identity as an idiom, that makes no sense at all.
Figures of speech remain figures of speech when used in that context, they don't get distilled into their literal parts, losing their metaphorical meaning.

So there's no actual ambiguity because the meaning of the idiom is known. It could only ever be seen as ambiguous if you are ignorant of its meaning, but that's not the idiom's fault.
 
For the longest time I thought that the idiom was talking about making your own cake and eating too, which would be selfish. but I was wrong lol



The idiom says "you can't have your cake and eat it too". When in fact it should say "you can't eat your cake and have it too". It is easier to comprehend, and makes more sense.
Easier to understand for people who can understand very simple concepts and speak a minimal amount of English. Some people around here don't meet those requirements.
 
I love this thread.

OP, what does this sentence mean?

I have to have my cake now.

...or better yet.

I have this cake here, but we have to have it now.
 
For the longest time I thought that the idiom was talking about making your own cake and eating too, which would be selfish. but I was wrong lol



The idiom says "you can't have your cake and eat it too". When in fact it should say "you can't eat your cake and have it too". It is easier to comprehend, and makes more sense.
This is, as far as I know, a common point.
The concept of sequencing implied by the phrase is a bit issue for the "have and it eat it" version, the version you present is more in line with the figurative meaning and it is actually a pretty commonly used one as well.
 
I love this thread.

OP, what does this sentence mean?

I have to have my cake now.

...or better yet.

I have this cake here, but we have to have it now.

Oh you’ve gone and done it now! Incoming 12 pages about why would you want to eat the cake when you’re already eating a cake that’s been eaten.

eat
 
No, idioms are a specific thing, just because you are using it to represent a logical fallacy it doesn't mean that it loses its identity as an idiom, that makes no sense at all.
Figures of speech remain figures of speech when used in that context, they don't get distilled into their literal parts, losing their metaphorical meaning.

So there's no actual ambiguity because the meaning of the idiom is known. It could only ever be seen as ambiguous if you are ignorant of its meaning, but that's not the idiom's fault.

How doesn't it make sense? Pointing out a logical fallacy has a logical meaning, like strawman, ad hominem, etc. In case of the Latin-rooted fallacy terms, they are their literal meaning. Why should an idiom be exempt from that?

I love this thread.

OP, what does this sentence mean?

I have to have my cake now.

...or better yet.

I have this cake here, but we have to have it now.

"I have to eat my cake now"

"I have this cake here but we eat to eat it now." This sounds redundant. Better to say "I have this cake here but we're going to eat it now."

Now they are cherry-picking quotes from an explanation that explicitly contradicts their usage. Troll thread is trolling.

You call me a troll, I'm trying to be genuine here. From the article, an entire passage.

[Alternatively, the two verbs can be understood to represent a sequence of actions, so one can indeed "have" one's cake and then "eat" it. Consequently, the literal meaning of the reversed idiom doesn't match the metaphorical meaning. The phrase can also have specialized meaning in academic contexts; Classicist Katharina Volk of Columbia University has used the phrase to describe the development of poetic imagery in Latin didactic poetry, naming the principle behind the imagery's adoption and application the "have-one's-cake-and-eat-it-too principle".]
 
Oh you’ve gone and done it now! Incoming 12 pages about why would you want to eat the cake when you’re already eating a cake that’s been eaten.

eat

OP:

tumblr_mvlby5FvCi1qgf86ro1_250.gif


~~

The strange thing is that OP seems to accept that "to eat" in this idiom involves eating it in its completion and yet is now claiming that they'll take a selfie eating cake as if that makes the idiom incorrect.
 
But yet its still cake. We don't typically call partially-eating cake partially-eaten cake, no, we call it cake.

The phrase isn't "you can't have cake," it's YOUR cake specifically. This is a single object, not a vague amount of "cake." Your cake ceases to be a single, solitary cake once you take a bite of it. It's a partially eaten cake, or what could be called "the rest of your cake" at that point.
 
The strange thing is that OP seems to accept that "to eat" in this idiom involves eating it in its completion and yet is now claiming that they'll take a selfie eating cake as if that makes the idiom incorrect.

I'm fairly positive this whole thread is an elaborate ruse to be allowed to eat an entire cake. Just eat it, OP, you can double up on the workouts for a week or so.
 
OP:

tumblr_mvlby5FvCi1qgf86ro1_250.gif


~~

The strange thing is that OP seems to accept that "to eat" in this idiom involves eating it in its completion and yet is now claiming that they'll take a selfie eating cake as if that makes the idiom incorrect.

No, I never accepted that. My argument is at follows:

Regarding the idiom "You can't have your cake and eat it too" is stupid in that

A) You have to have your cake in the first place in order to eat it

B) When you are eating cake, you are having cake, at the same time

C) One should not be ashamed for eating cake.
 
How doesn't it make sense? Pointing out a logical fallacy has a logical meaning, like strawman, ad hominem, etc. In case of the Latin-rooted fallacy terms, they are their literal meaning. Why should an idiom be exempt from that?
First of all "Can't have your cake and eat it too" is not the name of any specific logical fallacy, so the comparison with Ad hominem and Strawman fallacy is neither here nor there.
Secondly, idioms are not exempt from that as there's no formal requirements for declarations of logical fallacy to be strictly literal, your question, again, is puzzling as it seems to imply rules that never have existed. If I use a metaphor to describe fallacious reasoning, I'm not doing anything wrong, as metaphors are not fallacies.

I would also have to ask you what an Argumentum ad lapidem would mean, literally speaking, as its meaning is entirely derived from a specific anecdote.
 
No, I never accepted that. My argument is at follows:

Regarding the idiom "You can't have your cake and eat it to" is stupid in that

A) You have to have your cake in the first place in order to eat it

B) When you are eating cake, you are having cake, at the same time

C) One should not be ashamed for eating cake.

If you're serious with this comment, I would pay all the money in the world to sit you down and explain it to you like you're 5.

Which, by the way, is what I referring to. Once you eat your cake, you don't have it. You stop having it. It's eaten.
 
If you're serious with this comment, I would pay all the money in the world to sit you down and explain it to you like you're 5.

Which, by the way, is what I referring to. Once you eat your cake, you don't have it. You stop having it. It's eaten.

What about cake burps? The idiom doesn't take into account cake burps
 
"Don't feed them after midnight"

So, what, I can't feed them at 6am before I go to work? How about 9am? When's the cut-off point?!
That's always bothered me about the movie. I think it's probably goes until the sun goes up, but it's not explained, so that's just my personal way of coping. Probably one of my favorite movies, but it annoys me.
 
If you're serious with this comment, I would pay all the money in the world to sit you down and explain it to you like you're 5.

Which, by the way, is what I referring to. Once you eat your cake, you don't have it. You stop having it. It's eaten.

Again, who eats an entire cake in one sitting? And on another note, nowhere in the idiom implies future tense. People keep bringing up the future tense, the idiom in no way shape or form implies that.
 
Again, who eats an entire cake in one sitting. An on another note, nowhere in the idiom implies future tense.

Your cake is the amount that you are going to eat though. Anything you don't eat is just free cake unless you're a selfish asshole. You aren't selfish, are you?
 
Again, who eats an entire cake in one sitting? And on another note, nowhere in the idiom implies future tense. People keep bringing up the future tense, the idiom in no way shape or form implies that.

You said you were Japanese, you know how small cakes can be.
 
One thing I learned from the 'elf on a shelf' thread is that apparently the idiom "Horses for Courses" doesn't rhyme in some places.
 
How doesn't it make sense? Pointing out a logical fallacy has a logical meaning, like strawman, ad hominem, etc. In case of the Latin-rooted fallacy terms, they are their literal meaning. Why should an idiom be exempt from that?



"I have to eat my cake now"

"I have this cake here but we eat to eat it now." This sounds redundant. Better to say "I have this cake here but we're going to eat it now.
"

Now you've established that even in the context of food have doesn't have to mean eat. You pick the definition of the word that makes the most sense with the context given. What you're doing is cherry picking one possible interpretation and using it prove a point against the common sense interpretation.

You can literally say " you can't have your cake, and have it too" and make sense. It would be more confusing, but you would still easily arrive at the point.
 
Now you've established that even in the context of food have doesn't have to mean eat. You pick the definition of the word that makes the most sense with the context given. What you're doing is cherry picking one possible interpretation and using it prove a point against the common sense interpretation.

You can literally say " you can't have your cake, and have it too" and make sense. It would be more confusing, but you would still easily arrive at the point.

Yes I am, because the idiom is often uttered as a logical fallacy. In terms of an argument I'm not going to bring up a vague metaphor to declare fallacy, that's contradictory. If people say "No you can't do that, you're having your cake and eating it too" my rebuttal is always "so? If I have the cake I'm going to eat it."
 
Yes I am, because the idiom is often uttered as a logical fallacy. In terms of an argument I'm not going to bring up a vague metaphor to declare fallacy, that's contradictory. If people say "No you can't do that, you're having your cake and eating it too" my rebuttal is always "so? If I have the cake I'm going to eat it."

but

the phrase is used to say "you can't eat a cake and continue to own said cake once you already ate all of it."

We're not talking half a cake. We're not talking just a slice of cake. We're talking about the whole cake.

It doesn't matter how long it takes you to eat the whole thing. The point is that, once you've already eaten the whole cake, you no longer own that cake. Because you ate it.
 
but



We're not talking half a cake. We're not talking just a slice of cake. We're talking about the whole cake.

It doesn't matter how long it takes you to eat the whole thing. The point is that, once you've already eaten the whole cake, you no longer own that cake. Because you ate it.

Where in the idiom implies future tense? Tell me, what word, or predicate? If I have the cake I will eat it due to the primary purpose of the cake and the fact that having = eating.
 
but



We're not talking half a cake. We're not talking just a slice of cake. We're talking about the whole cake.

It doesn't matter how long it takes you to eat the whole thing. The point is that, once you've already eaten the whole cake, you no longer own that cake. Because you ate it.

You forgot my backup cake, an easy mistake to make
 
To be honest, this brings into question as to what a cake is.

For example, if the cake is half eaten, is it still cake?

What if you cut the cake in half? You have two cakes, don't you?

What if you keep doing that? Is a crumb still a cake?

There is to be a cutoff point...


(or is the whole undisturbed cake, the metaphorical cake in this idiom? I wonder)
 
First of all "Can't have your cake and eat it too" is not the name of any specific logical fallacy, so the comparison with Ad hominem and Strawman fallacy is neither here nor there.
Secondly, idioms are not exempt from that as there's no formal requirements for declarations of logical fallacy to be strictly literal, your question, again, is puzzling as it seems to imply rules that never have existed. If I use a metaphor to describe fallacious reasoning, I'm not doing anything wrong, as metaphors are not fallacies.

I would also have to ask you what an Argumentum ad lapidem would mean, literally speaking, as its meaning is entirely derived from a specific anecdote.

I'll still take the fallacy as literal, an appeal to the stone, the physical stone is a fallacy both metaphorically and literally.
 
Where in the idiom implies future tense? Tell me, what word, or predicate? If I have the cake I will eat it due to the primary purpose of the cake and the fact that having = eating.

Consider this, the future tense is implied because the idiom wouldn't make sense otherwise.
 
That cake expression is stupid. That you can make sense of it doesn't matter, it's still poorly phrased. Expressions shouldn't be poorly phrased. Is there any language with an equivalent expression? I know French doesn't, and it's because it's terrible.
 
You can't have your cake and eat it (too) is a popular English idiomatic proverb or figure of speech.[1] The proverb literally means "you cannot simultaneously retain your cake and eat it". Once the cake is eaten, it is gone. It can be used to say that one cannot or should not have or want more than one deserves or is reasonable, or that one cannot or should not try to have two incompatible things. The proverb's meaning is similar to the phrases "you can't have it both ways" and "you can't have the best of both worlds."

AnathemicOne misunderstands the meanings of "have" and "eat" as used here but still understand the proverb in its entirety and intent and use it in this form. AnathemicOne feels this form of the proverb is incorrect and illogical and instead prefer "you can't eat your cake and [then still] have it", which is in fact closer to the original form of the proverb[2] (see further explanations below) but uncommon today. Another variant uses "keep" instead of "have".[3]

Having to choose whether to have or eat your cake illustrates the concept of trade-offs or opportunity cost.[4][5][6]

.
 
Consider this, the future tense is implied because the idiom wouldn't make sense otherwise.

Implication doesn't hold scrutiny as a logical fallacy declaration when it it often used. Again if someone tells me that I'm ignoring a tradeoff of sorts and declare "You can't have your cake and eat it too" my rebuttal would be "Yes I can, that's the purpose of the cake, to eat it."
 
That cake expression is stupid. That you can make sense of it doesn't matter, it's still poorly phrased. Expressions shouldn't be poorly phrased. Is there any language with an equivalent expression? I know French doesn't, and it's because it's terrible.


pédaler dans la choucroute
 
Where in the idiom implies future tense? Tell me, what word, or predicate? If I have the cake I will eat it due to the primary purpose of the cake and the fact that having = eating.

The idiom describes a hypothetical future. Think of it as a conditional sentence (eg: If you eat your cake, you won't have it too).
 
The idiom describes a hypothetical future. Think of it as a conditional sentence (eg: If you eat your cake, you won't have it too).

That's not how its used in arguments though. People declare that "one cannot have cake and eat it too" as if to shame the person. There's no future tense or hypothetical here.
 
Trust me, it's hypothetical.

Bullshit, if one wanted to use a hypothetical in an example one would preface it. Shoving a hypothetical metaphor with no context is poor arguing. Hence why the idiom is stupid, hence the thread title.

What's an example that you've heard? I've never heard it used in this way.

I'm saying that's my interpretation of it. I fail to see how its wrong given the context of the idiom in how its worded.
 
Implication doesn't hold scrutiny as a logical fallacy declaration when it it often used. Again if someone tells me that I'm ignoring a tradeoff of sorts and declare "You can't have your cake and eat it too" my rebuttal would be "Yes I can, that's the purpose of the cake, to eat it."

OP, the idiom is just stating that you generally can't enjoy the benefits of an item and still retain that whole, unused item. It's really not about "logical fallacy declarations" or the purpose of the cake or the guilt of eating cake or whatever else you're trying to mold it into.

If you have 5 dollars and you spend that 5 dollars you don't have the same five dollars left. Is that true or not, OP?
 
OP, the idiom is just stating that you generally can't enjoy the benefits of an item and still retain that whole, unused item. It's really not about "logical fallacy declarations" or the purpose of the cake or the guilt of eating cake or whatever else you're trying to mold it into.

If you have 5 dollars and you spend that 5 dollars you don't have the same five dollars left. Is that true or not, OP?

That's true, the idiom isn't "You can't spend money and have it too" its "You can't have cake and eat it too". Hell even "have" in your example is switched in the idiom.
 
OP, the idiom is just stating that you generally can't enjoy the benefits of an item and still retain that whole, unused item. It's really not about "logical fallacy declarations" or the purpose of the cake or the guilt of eating cake or whatever else you're trying to mold it into.

If you have 5 dollars and you spend that 5 dollars you don't have the same five dollars left. Is that true or not, OP?
Why are you eating five dollars????
 
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