Here's the problem with the "vocal minority" statement. The very nature of this statement is based on accepting that if a person is not vocally expressing this opinion, that the person probably disagrees with it but doesn't care to make his voice heard.
For example, if a bunch of people complain about how shitty Game XYZ is, and the "vocal minority" argument is invoked, it is accepted that it means to state that only a small number of people who played Game XYZ dislike it, and they are the ones who are complaining the loudest. Examples are then drawn out that out of the "millions of people" who bought Game XYZ, only "a few thousand" are complaining about it on the internet.
But the flaw in this argument is that this is factually wrong. Just because a person is not voting on a poll, or not complaining about it online, or not signing petitions about something, does not mean that they DISAGREE with the position. They could agree that Game XYZ is a piece of shit, but just not care enough to take an active stand about it. If a friend asks them about it, they would say the game sucked, but outside of that they don't talk about it because they have better things to do.
Why is the presumption of people who throw the "vocal minority" argument out always that if you are not complaining about something vocally, you are grouped with the people who probably liked it but are keeping silent? Is there a good argument around this?
Let's say millions of people did buy ME3, and let's say 5% of them are so outraged by the ending that they are making a stand online to do all sorts of vocal stuff. Are they the vocal minority? Or the vocal majority? How many of the other 95% -like- the ending? How many of them also dislike the ending? Can anyone provide definitive figures? If not, why is it assumed that most of the other 95% are on the opposite side?