I read your response to him but I really disagree.
I seem to get this a lot. It's like I'm constantly arguing with dozens of contrarians.
If you want to operate a business in the United States and take advantage of federal and state tax breaks, how in the world is there not a connection? The government makes the laws--why should they be exempt? Can a business publicly operate and say, "Well, you know what? Screw it--I'm just going to claim religious objection and sell alcohol to minors/guns without background checks/etc./?" Both of those would be breaking the law and the government gets involved. If those are set laws, don't we have set anti-discrimination laws as well? If we do not, we very well should if a business is going to be taking that money.
I'd argue that businesses shouldn't be considered private if they are taking money from the government that makes the laws.
You're making two slightly different arguments in your first paragraph. Your first argument is that, because a person benefits from government-provided benefits (tax breaks), he or she should operate his or her business within the restrictions
already imposed by law. To this argument, I have three responses: first, it's unnecessary--a person should follow the law because it's the law, not because he or she obtains some unrelated benefit from the lawmaker. Second, this is a bargain that is not made in the law. "Tax breaks" (which I'm interpreting very broadly, as including the right to deduct expenses from income in calculating the federal income tax due for a year) are not generally contingent on following unrelated provisions of law. Third, this doesn't explain why discriminating on the basis of sexual orientation in public accommodations
should be illegal in some or all instances. So, in the states where such discrimination is
not illegal (neither is it illegal under federal law), your argument has no relevance.
Your second argument is like FryeWulff's argument in the other thread. This argument is that, because a person obtains some government-provided benefit, he or she can't exclude prospective customers from his or her business. In other words, the law
ought to impose certain restrictions on the operations of a business because of the advantages accruing to that business from government action. But without a logical connection between the benefit conferred and the burden imposed (e.g., you can deduct your business expenses but you must keep track of them so the IRS can audit them, if need be), it's just a blanket justification for the exercise of government power. So long as you can point to some government benefit--roads, tax deductions or credits, public parks, etc.--you can justify the imposition of any burden whatsoever on the person.
The argument you would make in your final paragraph, if I understand what you're saying, would upend American society, and should be rejected for that reason alone.
Aaron Strifed version: No ur wrong cuz of reasons