phisheep
NeoGAF's Chief Barrister
No, he doesn't. The country of Scotland did not in any substantial way vote for David Cameron or the Tory Party. He has no mandate there. That's the issue. The Scottish polity is fundamentally different to the English, to the extent that binding both into a tight multinational unitary state is lunacy.
I don't get why it's hard to accept that the United Kingdom is an anachronism, something worthy of being discarded on the dustbin of history.
That's not the issue at all. The constitutional settlement that we have is (for now at least) what it is. And what it is is that the people elected to Parliament get to vote on legislation and the majority wins.
We might not always like that, and there are all sorts of legitimate ways of pushing against it (and Salmond's proposed referendum is one of them).
If you go for the 'mandate' theory, then the various Labour governments have nearly never had a mandate in England, no party has a 'mandate' over the people who didn't vote for it and no party ever has had the right to govern anything. The whole 'mandate' idea is rubbish. Sure, governments like to claim it as a means of pushing through unpopular legislation, but doesn't mean the rest of us have to play ball, or at lest think that way.
Nobody voted for Cameron, except a few people somewhere in or near Oxfordshire, and even they voted for him as an MP, not as a party leader - though to be fair that may have had some influence.
If we were to argue that any section of the country (or nation, or union or whatever you want to call it) could secede at any time on the grounds it has more opposition MPs than government MPs, then the Southwest of England, Liverpool, Manchester and Birmingham would have seceded long ago. Maybe even Yorkshire.
But it's a load more difficult than that.