You keep saying he and I are making an mistake but quoting justices decisions doesn't ensure a right justices though they've constantly changed precedent. There's a declared right to vote in some cases that the justices have enounciated. But ask justice alito, scalia, or thomas if there is a right to an abortion or even a right to privacy in the constitution in there. Adding an amendment limits justices ability to waver. By your logic why have a 15th amendment if we have the 14th? the 14th protects the rights enumerated in the 15th.
and my reasons for supporting a voting rights amendment would be to strengthen protections not only felon disenfranchisement. your constant refrain of "don't worry we already got it covered" is typical conservative nonsense designed to keep the status quo that is trying to be fixed. Its not protected because justices clearly have no problem voting restrictions (see voter ID, VRA decisions).
And you quoting about another case says is meaningless (besides the fact you have the ability to search case law better than me) since the amendment would preempt that because that's clearly something that's wrong with the constitution.
As I mentioned before, you're making a new argument not raised by Yglesias in his article. You're saying that it's better to have an express constitutional right to vote, rather than an implicit constitutional right to vote, because an express right is more secure against judicial whimsy. But Yglesias doesn't even understand that there is already an implicit constitutional right. As a consequence, Yglesias believes that enacting an express right to vote would "flip the script," causing courts to review voting regulations differently than they do now. He's not just saying, "Well, it'd be nice if they couldn't change their minds about this," which is the gist of your argument.
Why, you ask, would there be a need for a Fifteenth Amendment, in light of the Fourteenth Amendment, under my logic? This question is based on a misunderstanding of my argument. As I said in distinguishing my argument from benji's, I'm not saying there's no need for an amendment where an existing provision of the Constitution
arguably provides for what we want, but we still have to convince judges that our interpretation is correct. My argument is that there is already a constitutional right to vote, and the enactment of an express provision codifying that right won't have the effects that Yglesias mistakenly believes it would.
Additionally, you suggest that, really, the right to vote is not protected, and an amendment would change that. But I don't see why that would be so. The courts' current approach takes as a given that the right to vote is a fundamental right protected by the Constitution; an amendment telling them the exact same thing isn't going to change how they address these questions.
Finally, you believe an amendment codifying existing doctrine would preempt the portion of section 2 of the Fourteenth Amendment that appears to validate felon disenfranchisement, but that's probably not true. The courts will not treat a later amendment as repealing an existing constitutional provision unless that's clearly the intent of the later amendment. So, without specifically calling out felon disenfranchisement, your new amendment would probably do nothing about it. As for the other issues you address, without a specific provision addressing them, there remains every reason to believe the courts will simply continue with existing doctrines, and merely add a new citation to their opinions. (Also, my research prowess in this case involved Google and Wikipedia, so quit selling yourself short.)
28 Percent of Americans admit to being Internet Trolls
If the PD/Metamucils of the world would admit so as well, that number would probably jump to 38%. :-D
Is it really so hard to believe that you and I simply disagree about stuff?